Today, I’ll share my experience studying for the CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 certification exam, covering general knowledge, differences between the new and old versions, recommended study resources, free practice questions, and common FAQs.
The CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 exam covers a wide range of topics, and the official recommendation is for candidates to have CompTIA Network+ certification and two years of experience in security or systems administration. I strongly agree with this recommendation, as Security+ is an entry-level cybersecurity certification. Network+ provides foundational networking knowledge (such as network architecture, protocols, and troubleshooting), which is essential for understanding Security+ concepts like firewalls, VPNs, and intrusion detection systems. Security+ builds on this foundation by diving deeper into security practices.
Next, I’ll share my study experience step by step. Before I begin, I want to share my exam philosophy with all candidates: The CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 certification is highly professional, and we need to diligently study its core topics to prepare for future career growth. The SY0-701 exam is the final hurdle to validate our knowledge, so practice tests are crucial for me. Choosing high-quality practice materials can make your preparation for the SY0-701 exam twice as effective with half the effort.
SY0-701 Learning Common Sense
The official details for the CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 certification exam, including exam topics, pricing, total number of questions, question types, and more, are the foundational knowledge needed for preparation. We must pay attention to every detail to avoid unnecessary issues. Below is some common information, with more details available on the official website.
CompTIA Security+ Exam Overview
- What is the passing score for the CompTIA Security+ (SY0-701) exam?
To pass the CompTIA Security+ (SY0-701) certification exam, you need a score of 750 (on a scale of 100 to 900). - Is there an age requirement for taking CompTIA exams?
There is no age requirement. You can take CompTIA exams, including A+, Network+, Security+, or other certifications, at any age. However, a legal representative (such as a family member or guardian) may need to sign the exam candidate agreement. - When is the CompTIA Security+ (SY0-701) exam expected to retire?
The SY0-701 exam was released on November 7, 2023, and is expected to retire in May 2027. This gives you plenty of time to prepare for the exam.
SY0-701 VS SY0-601
What are the main differences between the SY0-601 and SY0-701 versions?
The structure and style of the CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 exam are very similar to previous versions, such as SY0-601. However, they differ in specific questions and topics. For example:
- SY0-601 Architecture and Design Domain includes topics like configuration management, privilege management, DNS sinkholes, cloud models, edge and fog computing, secure deployment, secure coding techniques, directory services, authentication methods, biometrics, disk and network redundancy, embedded systems, SCADA, IoT, and physical security controls (e.g., CCTV, industrial camouflage, robot sentries, locks, sensors, drones, Faraday cages).
- SY0-601 Implementation Domain covers security protocols, boot security, application hardening, hardware root of trust, load balancing, network segmentation, out-of-band management, wireless security protocols, mobile device management (MDM), HSM, cloud security controls, identity controls, account types, geofencing and geotagging, authentication factors, and certificate concepts.
- SY0-701 Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations Domain introduces new topics such as threat actor motivations, common threat vectors, misinformation/disinformation, business email compromise, and brand impersonation.
- SY0-701 Security Architecture Domain includes responsibility matrices, hybrid cloud considerations, third-party vendors, centralized vs. decentralized infrastructure, device placement, security zones, attack surfaces, fail-open/fail-closed systems, SD-WAN, and SASE.
SY0-701 Study Resources and Exam Prep Tips
I’ve prepared a variety of study resources, so you can choose the learning plan that suits your preferences. What are the recommended study materials for CompTIA Security+ (SY0-701)? Below are the recommended resources:
| Study Resources | Exam Prep Tips |
| Professor Messer’s Video Courses | Free online training courses available on YouTube, requiring no registration or payment. |
| Jason Dion’s Udemy Courses and Practice Exams | Jason Dion’s Udemy practice exams may be more challenging than the actual exam. |
| Flashcards | Available from the SY0-601 CompTIA guide. |
| CompTIA Exam Objectives | A free, highly useful document listing all the topics you need to know, serving as a study checklist. |
| Discord Study Community | A Discord server with thousands of students studying for A+, Network+, Security+, and other certifications. |
| Duke University Career Hub Practice Exams | Offers timed, untimed, or custom modes, with explanations for correct and incorrect answers. |
| Pass4itsure Practice Exams | Considered the closest to the actual exam, offering various question types and perfectly blending exam simulation with practice. |
2025 SY0-701 Free Practice Questions
| Number of exam questions | Related | Download |
| 15 (Free) | CompTIA Network+, Security+ | SY0-701 PDF |
Question 1:
Which of the following should a security operations center use to improve its incident response procedure?
A. Playbooks
B. Frameworks
C. Baselines
D. Benchmarks
Correct Answer: A
A playbook is a documented set of procedures that outlines the step-by-step response to specific types of cybersecurity incidents. Security Operations Centers (SOCs) use playbooks to improve consistency, efficiency, and accuracy during incident response.
Playbooks help ensure that the correct procedures are followed based on the type of incident, ensuring swift and effective remediation. Frameworks provide general guidelines for implementing security but are not specific enough for incident response procedures.
Baselines represent normal system behavior and are used for anomaly detection, not incident response guidance.
Benchmarks are performance standards and are not directly related to incident response.
Question 2:
Which of the following would be most useful in determining whether the long-term cost to transfer a risk is less than the impact of the risk?
A. ARO
B. RTO
C. RPO
D. ALE
E. SLE
Correct Answer: D
Question 3:
An organization disabled unneeded services and placed a firewall in front of a business- critical legacy system.
Which of the following best describes the actions taken by the organization?
A. Exception
B. Segmentation
C. Risk transfer
D. Compensating controls
Correct Answer: D
Compensating controls are alternative security measures that are implemented when the primary controls are not feasible, cost-effective, or sufficient to mitigate the risk. In this case, the organization used compensating controls to protect the legacy system from potential attacks by disabling unneeded services and placing a firewall in front of it. This reduced the attack surface and the likelihood of exploitation.
References:
Official CompTIA Security+ Study Guide (SY0-701), page 29 Security Controls – CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 – 1.1 1
Question 4:
Which of the following is the best reason to complete an audit in a banking environment?
A. Regulatory requirement
B. Organizational change
C. Self-assessment requirement
D. Service-level requirement
Correct Answer: A
A regulatory requirement is a mandate imposed by a government or an authority that must be followed by an organization or an individual. In a banking environment, audits are often required by regulators to ensure compliance with laws, standards, and policies related to security, privacy, and financial reporting. Audits help to identify and correct any gaps or weaknesses in the security posture and the internal controls of the organization.
References:
Official CompTIA Security+ Study Guide (SY0-701), page 507 Security+ (Plus) Certification | CompTIA IT Certifications 2
Question 5:
Which of the following is the first step to take when creating an anomaly detection process?
A. Selecting events
B. Building a baseline
C. Selecting logging options
D. Creating an event log
Correct Answer: B
The first step in creating an anomaly detection process is building a baseline of normal behavior within the system. This baseline serves as a reference point to identify deviations or anomalies that could indicate a security incident.
By understanding what normal activity looks like, security teams can more effectively detect and respond to suspicious behavior.
References:
CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Course Content: Domain 04 Security Operations. CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide: Chapter on Monitoring and Baselines.
Question 6:
A systems administrator notices that the research and development department is not using the company VPN when accessing various company-related services and systems.
Which of the following scenarios describes this activity?
A. Espionage
B. Data exfiltration
C. Nation-state attack
D. Shadow IT
Correct Answer: D
The activity described, where a department is not using the company VPN when accessing various company-related services and systems, is an example of Shadow IT. Shadow IT refers to the use of IT systems, devices, software, applications, and services without explicit IT department approval.
Espionage: Involves spying to gather confidential information, not simply bypassing the VPN.
Data exfiltration: Refers to unauthorized transfer of data, which might involve not using a VPN but is more specific to the act of transferring data out of the organization.
Nation-state attack: Involves attacks sponsored by nation-states, which is not indicated in the scenario.
Shadow IT: Use of unauthorized systems and services, which aligns with bypassing the company VPN.
Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Objectives, Domain 2.1 – Compare and contrast common threat actors and motivations (Shadow IT).
Question 7:
An organization plans to take online orders via a new website. Three web servers are available for this website. However, the organization does not want to reveal the network addresses or quantity of the individual servers to the general public.
Which of the following would best fulfill these requirements?
A. IPSec
B. Explicit proxy
C. Port security
D. Virtual IP
Correct Answer: D
Question 8:
An organization\’s internet-facing website was compromised when an attacker exploited a buffer overflow.
Which of the following should the organization deploy to best protect against similar attacks in the future?
A. NGFW
B. WAF
C. TLS
D. SD-WAN
Correct Answer: B
A buffer overflow is a type of software vulnerability that occurs when an application writes more data to a memory buffer than it can hold, causing the excess data to overwrite adjacent memory locations. This can lead to unexpected behavior, such as crashes, errors, or code execution.
A buffer overflow can be exploited by an attacker to inject malicious code or commands into the application, which can compromise the security and functionality of the system. An organization\’s internet-facing website was compromised when an attacker exploited a buffer overflow.
To best protect against similar attacks in the future, the organization should deploy a web application firewall (WAF). A WAF is a type of firewall that monitors and filters the traffic between a web application and the internet.
A WAF can detect and block common web attacks, such as buffer overflows, SQL injections, cross-site scripting (XSS), and more. A WAF can also enforce security policies and rules, such as input validation, output encoding, and encryption. A WAF can provide a layer of protection for the web application, preventing attackers from exploiting its vulnerabilities and compromising its data.
References: Buffer Overflows -CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 ?2.3, Web Application Firewalls -CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 ?2.4, [CompTIA Security+ Study Guide with over 500 Practice Test Questions: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition]
Question 9:
Which of the following is used to quantitatively measure the criticality of a vulnerability?
A. CVE
B. CVSS
C. CIA
D. CERT
Correct Answer: B
CVSS stands for Common Vulnerability Scoring System, which is a framework that provides a standardized way to assess and communicate the severity and risk of vulnerabilities.
CVSS uses a set of metrics and formulas to calculate a numerical score ranging from 0 to 10, where higher scores indicate higher criticality.
CVSS can help organizations prioritize remediation efforts and compare vulnerabilities across different systems and vendors. The other options are not used to measure the criticality of a vulnerability, but rather to identify, classify, or report them.
References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 39
Question 10:
A network administrator deployed a DNS logging tool that logs suspicious websites that are visited and then sends a daily report based on various weighted metrics.
Which of the following best describes the type of control the administrator put in place?
A. Preventive
B. Deterrent
C. Corrective
D. Detective
Correct Answer: D
The tool that the network administrator deployed is described as one that logs suspicious websites and sends a daily report based on various weighted metrics.
This fits the description of a detective control. Detective controls are designed to identify and log security events or incidents after they have occurred. By analyzing these logs and generating reports, the tool helps in detecting potential security breaches, thus allowing for further investigation and response. References: Based on the CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Resources, specifically under the domain of Security Operations, which discusses different types of security controls, including detective controls.
Question 11:
After multiple on premises security solutions were migrated to the cloud, the incident response time increased. The analyst are spending a long time to trace information on different cloud consoles and correlating data in different formats.
Which of the following can be used to optimize the incident response time?
A. CASB
B. VPC
C. SWG
D. CMS
Correct Answer: A
CASB vs SWG CASB is the more optimal solution for multiple on premises security solutions CASB services are explicitly designed to fit the needs of large enterprises You can access link and read about it: https://www.gend.co/blog/casb-or-swg-which-is-best-option-for-your-enterprise
Question 12:
An enterprise is trying to limit outbound DNS traffic originating from its internal network. Outbound DNS requests will only be allowed from one device with the IP address 10.50.10.25.
Which of the following firewall ACLs will accomplish this goal?
A. Access list outbound permit 0.0.0.0 0 0.0.0.0/0 port 53 Access list outbound deny 10.50.10.25 32 0.0.0.0/0 port 53
B. Access list outbound permit 0.0.0.0/0 10.50.10.25 32 port 53 Access list outbound deny 0.0.0.0 0 0.0.0.0/0 port 53
C. Access list outbound permit 0.0.0.0 0 0.0.0.0/0 port 53 Access list outbound deny 0.0.0.0/0 10.50.10.25 32 port 53
D. Access list outbound permit 10.50.10.25 32 0.0.0.0/0 port 53 Access list outbound deny 0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0/0 port 53
Correct Answer: D
The correct answer is D because it allows only the device with the IP address 10.50.10.25 to send outbound DNS requests on port 53, and denies all other devices from doing so. The other options are incorrect because they either allow all devices to send outbound DNS requests (A and C), or they allow no devices to send outbound DNS requests (B).
References: You can learn more about firewall ACLs and DNS in the following resources: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 4: Network Security1 Professor Messer\’s CompTIA SY0-701 Security+ Training Course, Section 3.2: Firewall Rules2 TOTAL: CompTIA Security+ Cert (SY0-701) | Udemy, Section 6: Network Security, Lecture 28: Firewall Rules3
Question 13:
An IT manager is increasing the security capabilities of an organization after a data classification initiative determined that sensitive data could be exfiltrated from the environment.
Which of the following solutions would mitigate the risk?
A. XDR
B. SPF
C. DLP
D. DMARC
Correct Answer: C
To mitigate the risk of sensitive data being exfiltrated from the environment, the IT manager should implement a Data Loss Prevention (DLP) solution.
DLP monitors and controls the movement of sensitive data, ensuring that unauthorized transfers are blocked and potential data breaches are prevented. XDR (Extended Detection and Response) is useful for threat detection across multiple environments but doesn\’t specifically address data exfiltration. SPF (Sender Policy Framework) helps prevent email spoofing, not data exfiltration.
DMARC (Domain-based Message Authentication, Reporting and Conformance) also addresses email security and spoofing, not data exfiltration.
Question 14:
An organization wants to ensure the integrity of compiled binaries in the production environment. Which of the following security measures would best support this objective?
A. Input validation
B. Code signing
C. SQL injection
D. Static analysis
Correct Answer: B
To ensure the integrity of compiled binaries in the production environment, the best security measure is code signing. Code signing uses digital signatures to verify the authenticity and integrity of the software, ensuring that the code has not been tampered with or altered after it was signed.
Code signing: Involves signing code with a digital signature to verify its authenticity and integrity, ensuring the compiled binaries have not been altered.
Input validation: Ensures that only properly formatted data enters an application but does not verify the integrity of compiled binaries.
SQL injection: A type of attack, not a security measure. Static analysis: Analyzes code for vulnerabilities and errors but does not ensure the integrity of compiled binaries in production.
Reference:
CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Objectives, Domain 1.4 – Explain the importance of using appropriate cryptographic solutions (Code signing).
Question 15:
SIMULATION
A systems administrator is configuring a site-to-site VPN between two branch offices. Some of the settings have already been configured correctly. The systems administrator has been provided the following requirements as part of completing the configuration:
1.
Most secure algorithms should be selected
2.
All traffic should be encrypted over the VPN
3.
A secret password will be used to authenticate the two VPN concentrators
INSTRUCTIONS
Click on the two VPN Concentrators to configure the appropriate settings.
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.
A. See the part for all the Solution
B. PlaceHolder
C. PlaceHolder
D. PlaceHolder
Correct Answer: A
To configure the site-to-site VPN between the two branch offices according to the provided requirements, here are the detailed steps and settings that need to be applied to the VPN concentrators:
Requirements:
Most secure algorithms should be selected.
All traffic should be encrypted over the VPN.
A secret password will be used to authenticate the two VPN concentrators.
VPN Concentrator 1 Configuration:
Phase 1:
Peer IP address: 5.5.5.20 (The IP address of VPN Concentrator 2) Auth method: PSK (Pre-Shared Key)
Negotiation mode: MAIN
Encryption algorithm: AES256
Hash algorithm: SHA256
DH key group: 14
Phase 2:
Mode: Tunnel
Protocol: ESP (Encapsulating Security Payload)
Encryption algorithm: AES256
Hash algorithm: SHA256
Local network/mask: 192.168.1.0/24
Remote network/mask: 192.168.2.0/24
VPN Concentrator 2 Configuration:
Phase 1:
Peer IP address: 5.5.5.5 (The IP address of VPN Concentrator 1) Auth method: PSK (Pre-Shared Key)
Negotiation mode: MAIN
Encryption algorithm: AES256
Hash algorithm: SHA256
DH key group: 14
Phase 2:
Mode: Tunnel
Protocol: ESP (Encapsulating Security Payload)
Encryption algorithm: AES256
Hash algorithm: SHA256
Local network/mask: 192.168.2.0/24
Remote network/mask: 192.168.1.0/24
Summary:
Peer IP Address: Set to the IP address of the remote VPN concentrator.
Auth Method: PSK for using a pre-shared key.
Negotiation Mode: MAIN for the initial setup.
Encryption Algorithm: AES256, which is a strong and secure algorithm. Hash Algorithm: SHA256, which provides strong hashing. DH Key Group: 14 for strong Diffie-Hellman key exchange. Phase 2 Protocol: ESP for encryption and integrity.
Local and Remote Networks: Properly configure the local and remote network addresses to match each branch office subnet.
By configuring these settings on both VPN concentrators, the site-to-site VPN will meet the requirements for strong security algorithms, encryption of all traffic, and authentication using a pre-shared key.
The above is a portion of the free SY0-701 exam practice questions I’ve collected. You can access the complete study materials at https://www.pass4itsure.com/sy0-701.html, which includes a total of 718 practice questions, guaranteed to help you successfully pass the CompTIA Security+ certification exam.
SY0-701 FAQs
Is it normal to start confusing material while preparing for the Security+ exam?
Yes, it’s completely normal. Many people experience this during exam preparation, and even seasoned professionals can’t be 100% confident. If this happens, try doing more hands-on practice to reinforce your knowledge.
How to effectively use exam objectives to prepare for the exam?
The exam objectives are an excellent document that outlines everything you need to know, and CompTIA rarely deviates from this list. You can use it as a study checklist:
- Use it at the start of your study process to plan your learning content.
- Use it at the end of your study to check if you’re ready for the exam.
- Mark the topics you’ve mastered with green or a checkmark to clearly track your progress.
What is the structure of the CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 exam, and how are performance-based questions (PBQs) handled?
The CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 certification requires passing a single exam. The exam consists of a maximum of 90 questions, although some individuals may receive fewer questions. The question formats include both multiple-choice questions and performance-based questions (PBQs).
Regarding PBQs:
•PBQs can be presented in various interactive formats, such as matching, fill-in-the-blank, drag-and-drop, or drop-down menus.
•They often involve practical scenarios, such as matching attack indicators (like high CPU utilization or user account lockouts) to specific attack types (e.g., SQL injection, Denial of Service, Brute Force, Sideloading).
•One test-taker reported having three PBQs out of 77 total questions on their exam.
•It’s emphasized that a strong understanding of the underlying material is necessary for PBQs; if you “don’t know what’s going on at all,” you likely haven’t grasped the concepts sufficiently.
•While some candidates have experienced technical issues with PBQs (e.g., scrolling problems), CompTIA does not provide specific details on how these questions are graded or if partial credit is awarded. The advice is to focus on mastering the exam objectives rather than worrying about grading specifics, as this information is not disclosed and outside of your control during the exam.
What are some important cybersecurity concepts and attack types covered in the CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 exam?
The SY0-701 exam covers a broad range of cybersecurity concepts and attack types, including:
•Security Controls: Categorization of controls into technical, managerial, operational, and physical is a key area. Examples include Separation of Duties (operational deterrent), firewalls (technical deterrent), and physical measures like motion detectors and door locks.
•Cryptography: Understanding the four fundamental goals of cryptography: confidentiality, integrity, authentication, and non-repudiation. This includes distinguishing between symmetric (shared secret key) and asymmetric (public/private key pairs) cryptosystems, and knowing that a sender uses their private key for digital signatures and the recipient uses the sender’s public key for verification.
•Data Protection: Concepts include data at rest, in transit, and in use, along with methods to secure data such as encryption, hashing, masking, tokenization, obfuscation, segmentation, and permission restrictions.
•Vulnerability Management: Familiarity with the Common Vulnerability Scoring System (CVSS) metrics (attack vector, complexity, privileges required, impact metrics) and the importance of regular vulnerability scanning.
•Risk Management: Key elements include risk identification, assessment (qualitative and quantitative), analysis (SLE, ALE, ARO), and mitigation strategies (transfer, accept, avoid, mitigate).
•Incident Response: The six phases of the incident response cycle: detection, analysis, containment, eradication, recovery, and post-incident reporting.
•Compliance and Governance: Topics like information security policies, the Software Development Lifecycle (SDLC), NIST Cybersecurity Framework functions (Identify, Protect, Detect, Respond, Recover), and ISO standards (e.g., ISO 27701 for privacy, ISO 27001/27002 for cybersecurity) are covered.
•Network and Endpoint Security: Concepts include Zero Trust Architecture, firewalls, Access Control Lists (ACLs), SNMP traps for monitoring, and secure protocol replacements (e.g., SSH for Telnet on port 22) Best practices include disabling unneeded services and using out-of-band management for network device administration.
•Malware Types: The exam covers various malware, including Ransomware, Trojan, Worm, Spyware, Virus, Keylogger, Logic bomb, and Rootkit.
•Social Engineering: Emphasis on phishing (identified as a very common threat vector), brand impersonation, and disinformation attacks
•Injection Attacks: Specifically SQL injection (SQLi), including blind and timing-based SQL injection techniques
